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Exam : EMC E22-181
Title : EMC Legato Emailxtender Administrator Exam

1. A customer wants to use EMC Centera to archive messages from EmailXtender.
Which application is configured with EmailXtender to perform this operation?
A. Audit Utility
B. DiskXtender
C. EmailXtract
Answer: B

2. Company XYZ is planning to buy EmailXtender Archive Edition. Its criteria is to archive all messages sent outside the company domain and exclude everything else.
What does Company XYZ need to do?
A. Configure an exclusion rule for all internal mail
B. Configure an inclusion rule for all mail sent outside the company
C. Configure an inclusion rule for all mail sent outside the company and an exclusion rule for all internal mail
D. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition
Answer: D

3. What is the purpose of a journaling mailbox in an EmailXtender environment?
A. Queue messages for indexing
B. Store messages temporarily
C. Store pointers to shortcuts
D. Transfer messages to EmailXtract
Answer: B

4. Which regulatory objective does EmailXtender address?
A. Blocking (quarantining) of email if it contains inappropriate content
B. Ensuring privacy (encryption) of email as it moves across a public infrastructure (Internet)
C. Executing a discovery request against archived email records
D. Randomly flagging messages for review
Answer: C

5. Which function is performed by EmailXtender Archive Edition?
A. Instant message capturing
B. Realtime archiving
C. Scheduled archiving
D. Spam email elimination
Answer: C

6. Comet Investments is using an evaluation version of EmailXtender Archive Edition. Comet wants users to be able to archive their own messages using the user-directed archiving feature.
What should the EmailXtender administrator do first?
A. Buy a license for Archive Edition
B. Create a user-directed folder structure
C. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition, evaluation version
D. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition, licensed version
Answer: D

7. What does the archive process do?
A. Copies all incoming or outgoing mail to a mailbox
B. Moves copied mail from the mail server to a storage location on the EmailXtender server
C. Organizes messages by content
D. Replaces messages on a mail server with pointers to the message in EmailXtender
Answer: B

8. Which EmailXtender component can be leveraged to perform archival of historic email messages from restored backup tapes in response to a legal discovery request?
A. EmailXtract
B. HealthCheck
C. Search Plug-in
Answer: A

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Exam : EMC E20-611
Title : EMC CLARiiON Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist

1. A customer has a DAE3P configured and running at 4 Gb/s back-end speed, and you install a 2 Gb/s-only drive in the enclosure.
What will the DAE3P do with the new drive?
A. It will add the drive at 2 Gb/s back-end speed with no issues and initialize it.
B. It will add the drive at 4 Gb/s back-end speed with no issues and initialize it.
C. It will change the back-end speed of the entire enclosure to match the 2 Gb/s drive.
D. It will not add the drive to the loop due to the incompatible drive speed.
Answer: D

2. How many GB of memory are installed in each CX4-960 SP?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: B

3. How many GB of memory are installed in each CX4-480 SP?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

4. How many BE ports does a CX4-480 array have?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

5. How many fans are in a CX4-960 fan pack?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

6. Click the Exhibit button.
In which slot is the iSCSI module installed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

7. What is indicated in a CX4 if the Fault LED on an SP is blinking blue at a frequency of 1 Hz?
A. FLARE is ready for I/O.
B. POST is starting the OS.
C. The FLARE drivers are starting.
D. The SP is executing POST.
Answer: C

8. On a CLARiiON CX4-960 array what is the maximum number of drives supported on each back-end loop?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 960
Answer: A

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Exam : EMC E20-485
Title : Content Management Application Architecture Exam

1. You are building a solution to automate a Grants Management Process. Your workflow involves searching documents in an external non-Documentum Repository. You also need to generate a graphical report on auto activities.
Which EMC product combination achieves this?
A. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), TaskSpace
B. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor(BAM), Webtop
C. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
D. Workflow Manager, Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
Answer: C

2. In addition to Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM) and Records Manager (RM), which products contain a user interface and are part of the compliance and archiving products suite offered by Documentum?
A. only Retention Policy Services (RPS)
B. Retention Policy Services (RPS) and Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
C. Content Storage Services (CSS)
D. only Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
Answer: A

3. An insurance company has standardized the client desktop on the Microsoft Office platform. The company designed a claim Documentum workflow on Microsoft Word documents. The workflow needs to be manually initiated by the user. Users would prefer a more integrated solution so that they do not need to launch multiple applications to start a workflow.
Which product meets these requirements?
A. Webtop
B. Application Connectors
C. Process Integrator
D. Web Development Kit (WDK) applications
Answer: B

4. You have integrated Documentum Repository with Microsoft Exchange Server. You have been asked to reduce storage costs by using content compression and de-duplication.
Which EMC solution meets these requirements?
A. Content Services for EMC Centera and Content Storage Service (CSS)
B. Content Storage Service (CSS) and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Documentum Client for Outlook (DCO) and Content Services for EMC Centera
D. High Volume Server and Archive Services for Email
Answer: A

5. A new Documentum customer without any experience with Content Management systems has decided to purchase Documentum for its out-of-the-box functionality. They have general requirements for their users to have web access to basic content storage, library services, full-text search, and workflow.
Besides Content Server and Index Server, at a minimum, which solution would meet this customer’s requirements?
A. Webtop only
B. Webtop and Process Suite
C. Process Suite only
D. TaskSpace and Process Suite
Answer: A

6. In addition to Content Server, which server products are typically used for Interactive Content Management Solutions?
A. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
B. Document Transformation Services (DTS), Records Manager (RM)
C. Media Transformation Services (MTS), Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)
D. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Site Caching Services (SCS)
Answer: D

7. In addition to Digital Asset Manager (DAM), which client products are part of the Interactive Content Management Solution?
A. Web Publisher (WP), File Share Services (FSS)
B. Webtop, File Share Services (FSS)
C. Webtop, TaskSpace
D. TaskSpace, File Share Services (FSS)
Answer: A

8. Which EMC product is used to convert the text print stream into PDF format, extract the metadata, and ingest the content into Documentum Repository?
A. Document Transformation Services
B. Import Manager
C. Archive Services Reports (ASR)
D. Bulk Loader
Answer: C

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Exam : EMC e22-280
Title : Avamar Backup and Data Deduplication Exam

1. What describes the characteristics of an NDMP backup capability through an EMC Avamar accelerator?
A. Initiates a Level-1 backup to the NAS device to retrieve only change files, then uses the file cache to deduplicate data.
B. Is an active member of the EMC Avamar system’s RAIN configuration that provides a backup and recovery solution for NAS devices.
C. Stores Level 0 data in order to deduplicate subsequent backups, uses the hash cache to deduplicate data sent to the server.
D. Initiates a Level-1 backup to the NAS device to retrieve only change files, then uses the hash cache to deduplicate data.
Answer: D

2. A customer has an MS Exchange 2003 server with five Exchange databases in three storage groups. How many datasets will need to be defined to back up this Exchange environment?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

3. You are using the Avamar Administrator console to configure replication. What is the default Avamar root password?
A. 8RttoTriz
B. calvin
C. changeme
D. P3t3rPan
Answer: A

4. A customer has three MS SQL servers, each has four databases. How many datasets need to be created to back up all databases on all servers with EMC Avamar?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 12
Answer: A

5. What are key features of EMC Avamar?
A. Disk-based archive RAID, RAIN, clustering and replication Global deduplication
B. Global deduplication RAID, RAIN, checkpoints and replication Disk storage
C. Global deduplication RAID, RAIN, checkpoints and replication Auto-archive of NAS
D. OS-specific deduplication RAID, RAIN, checkpoints and replication Full, Incremental and Differential file system backups
Answer: B

6. You are configuring the network on an Avamar Data Store and need to log in as user ‘root’. What is the default operating system root password?
A. 8RttoTriz
B. calvin
C. changeme
D. P3t3rPan
Answer: C

7. What are the components of the Avamar benchmark test?
A. Random write, garbage collect performance, and HFS check performance
B. Random write, random read, and network throughput
C. Sequential write, network throughput, and backup performance
D. Sequential write, sequential read, and random seek
Answer: D

8. When backing up a MS Windows cluster using EMC Avamar, which resource needs to be excluded from the backup dataset?
A. C: drive
B. Quorom drive
C. Shared Resource
D. System32 Directory
Answer: B

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Exam : EMC E20-475
Title : Content Management Systems Architecture Exam

1. A client wants to upgrade their Documentum system from 5.3 SP3 to D6, but does not have the resources to upgrade and test web applications such as Webtop and Content Server components within a single downtime window. The client asks whether the upgrade can be phased, and if so which components should be upgraded first.
What is the correct response to the customer’s question?
A. Web applications must be upgraded before the Content Server.
B. Web applications must be upgraded after the Content Server is upgraded.
C. Web applications may be upgraded before or after the Content Server is upgraded.
D. Web applications do not need to be upgraded to make use of D6 features.
Answer: C

2. Which is a supported path for upgrading a Content Server to D6?
A. 4i > 5.2.5 > 6
B. 5.2 > 5.2.5 > 6
C. 4i > 5.3 > 6
D. 5.2.5 > 5.3 > 6
Answer: D

3. What is the correct sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Full-text Index Server?
A. uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents upgrade Content Server install Index Agents install Full-text Index Server
B. upgrade Content Server uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents install Index Agents install Full-text Index Server
C. delete Index Agents uninstall Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Full-text Index Server install Index Agents
D. delete Index Agents upgrade Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Index Agents
Answer: C

4. What is the proper sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Document Transformation Services (DTS)?
A. uninstall Content Server
uninstall DTS
install Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
B. remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS upgrade Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
C. upgrade Content Server
remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
D. remove DTS Support from repository
upgrade Content Server
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
Answer: B

5. After an upgrade from a pre 5.3 version to 5.3 or 6, what can you do to remove the Verity Full-text Index components?
A. You delete the Verity Full-text Index components via Documentum Administrator after the upgrade.
B. The Content Server upgrade procedure deletes the Full-text. Just the empty/fulltext/Verity directory needs to be deleted in the DOCUMENTUM directory.
C. You do not delete the Verity Full-text Index. The new Fast Full-text installation needs the data for migration.
D. You delete the Documentum type dmi_tdk_index and the Full-text data in DOCUMENTUM/data directory.
Answer: B

6. In addition to core software upgrade considerations, which component of a Documentum system are most likely to require additional work?
A. software use cases
B. network topology
C. data center architecture
D. application customizations
Answer: D

7. Which Application Server does D6 Content Server install for its internal use?
A. BEA Weblogic
B. Oracle AS
C. Apache Tomcat
D. IBM WebSphere
Answer: A

8. You are planning the upgrade of your Content Server software with Branch Office Caching Service (BOCS) on a remote site. The repository has approximately one million objects with 400 GB of content and 350 GB of full-text indexes. The BOCS cache has 20 GB of content.
What must be backed up before starting with the upgrade?
A. content, full-text index, and database
B. content, full-text index, and BOCS cache
C. full-text index, database, and BOCS cache
D. content, database, and BOCS cache
Answer: A

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Exam : EMC E20-501
Title : Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs

1. A customer needs a disaster recovery solution for their Exchange environment. They currently have one site running Exchange within a SAN using CX3-80 storage, and the other smaller Exchange site using DAS. They want to implement a remote recovery solution for Exchange.
What solution will you recommend?
A. Replication Manager
B. RepliStor
C. SAN Copy
D. SnapView
Answer: B

2. Which EMC backup and recovery solution replicates individual open and closed files, directories, and shares?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. EMC Legato
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

3. Which protocol is used to connect the RecoverPoint Appliance and the storage array?
A. FCOE
B. Fibre
C. IP
D. iSCSI
Answer: B

4. Which EMC backup and recovery solution features out-of-the box integration with Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. NetWorker
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

5. Which RecoverPoint feature provides local synchronous replication between LUNs that reside in one or more arrays at the same site?
A. CDP
B. CRR
C. RPA
D. RPSD
Answer: A

6. You have a customer with a remote facility containing only three Windows servers. They recently had their backup tapes fail, and they would like to implement a solution that removes tape from the remote facility, minimizes bandwidth utilization, and keeps the data secure when traveling across the network. If possible, they would like to use existing Windows servers in their data center to replicate the data to.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. AutoStart
B. Avamar
C. Disk Library
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

7. How does SAN Copy, running on a CLARiiON system, identify other storage systems?
A. Domain ID
B. FCID
C. MAC address
D. World Wide Names
Answer: D

8. Which Replication Manager user role has the rights to restore replicas?
A. Database Administrator
B. Operator
C. Power Administrator
D. Power User
Answer: A

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Exam : EMC E22-315
Title : Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies

1. What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

2. An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

3. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit. Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port 7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

4. A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

5. Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

6. Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

7. What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

8. What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

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Exam : EMC E20-817
Title : Symmetrix Business Continuity Expert Exam for Storage Admins

1. Click the Exhibit button.
The diagram shows a planned Star configuration with two Symmetrix arrays at each site. The options file to be used for setting up Star is shown on the left.
RDF Groups 5 and 6 on arrays A1 and A2 connect to arrays B1 and B2.
RDF Groups 15 and 16 on arrays A1 and A2 connect to arrays C1 and C2.
RDF Groups 55 and 56 on arrays B1 and B2 connect to arrays C1 and C2.
Which RDF groups in the configuration should be assigned the name SiteB?
A.5 and 15
B.5 and 6
C.55 and 56
D.6 and 16
Answer: B

2. Click on the Exhibit.
In an SRDF/Star implementation, the Connected state indicates which condition has occurred?
A.Both links are transmitting data, but one or both target sites are not fully synchronized with the workload site
B.The RDF relationship is not properly defined or there is no data flow between the sites.
C.The RDF relationship is properly defined, but the target site in question is not synchronized with the workload site and there is no consistency protection for the remote data.
D.The RDF relationship is properly defined, dependent write consistency of the data at the synchronous target site is assured through RDF-ECA and dependent write consistency at the asynchronous target is assured through MSC.
Answer: A

3. Your customer requests an immediate point-in-time copy of their production Oracle database but cannot have the application brought down.
Which Enginuity feature allows the creation of restartable copies without quiescing the database?
A.Double Checksum
B.Enginuity Consistency Assist
C.Multi-Session Consistency
D.Symmetrix Differential Data Facility
Answer: B

4. A company has a five-node MSCS cluster running SRDF/CE with three nodes at the primary site and two nodes at the secondary site. The sites are 10 km apart. Due to capacity requirement changes, additional storage is needed.
What must be done to the cluster after the storage configuration changes?
A.No action is required with MSCS after storage provisioning. All storage configuration updates are propagated automatically via the COM server to the cluster nodes.
B.SRDF/CE cluster requires use of the COM server that must be restarted after all configuration changes. Once a change is made to a node configuration, it will send out a message to all other cluster node members after the service restarts.
C.The clusters must be rebooted, and a complete rescan of the system bus is required. Any current patches should be applied at this time.
D.Update the SRDF/CE database by issuing a Symmetrix SRDF/CE Discover through the console or manually setting symcli_db_file to srdfcesymapi.db followed by the symcfg discover command.
Answer: D

5. Your client has 10 large Microsoft Exchange servers. Currently, the backups to tape are not completing in the backup window. The database cannot be stopped, and the client has no capacity to increase the number of tape drives available.
How will you help solve the clients problem and provide the shortest possible backup window?
A.Add local BCVs to the Exchange Server disk and use TF/EIM to perform parallel backups.
B.Replicate the data to a disaster recovery site and use TF/SIM to perform tape backups.
C.Use TF/EIM to perform parallel backups directly to tape.
D.Use the EMC EDM product to call the Microsoft Exchange Online Backup API to back up the data to tape.
Answer: A

6. A customer has a 5 (five) node Microsoft cluster (MSCS) that spans across 2 (two) sites over a SRDF/A link. Site A, the primary site, contains 3 (three) nodes. Site B, the remote site, contains 2 (two) nodes. If the customer is using SRDF/CE with Majority Note Set (MNS), what happens to the nodes at Site A if communication is lost between the 2 (two) sites?
A.Nodes at Site A and Site B will go offline until communication resumes to Site B. The nodes at both sites need to be started manually, and the /ForceQuorum switch must be used.
B.Nodes at Site A will go offline until communication resumes to Site B. The nodes at Site A need to be started manually and the /ForceQuorum switch must be used.
C.Nodes at Site A will go offline until the nodes at Site A are manually started and the /ForceQuorum switch is used.
D.Nodes will remain online.
Answer: D

7. Click the Exhibit button.
During the design process of a Star implementation, a customer expresses the intention to switch production to one of the target sites as part of a disaster drill. After the production has been switched, the customer wishes to run Star protection at this site.
What should you advise?
A.It does not matter which site the customer switches production to, because Star protection cannot be enabled when the workload is running at a target site.
B.Servers and management hosts may be provided at either site, because Star protection can be enabled while the workload is running at either target site.
C.Servers and management hosts should be provided at site B, because Star protection can only be enabled if the workload is switched to the Synchronous target site.
D.Servers and management hosts should be provided at site C, because Star protection can only be enabled if the workload is switched to the Asynchronous target site.
Answer: C

8. A customer running SRDF/Star experienced a workload site failure. Production was switched from the workload site A to the synchronous target site B. Some time later, site A came back online. Before switching production back to site A, a symdev show command is executed to examine the R1 devices at site A.
What is the RDF configuration state that describes the relationship of the RDF devices between A and B?
A.Duplicate
B.Half
C.Normal
D.Partitioned
Answer: A

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Exam : EMC E20-822
Title : CLARiiON Solutions Expert
Exam for Storage
Administrators

1. Click the Exhibit button.
The application using LUN 21 performs mainly 16 kB I/O operations. What is true of LUN 21?
A. Read performance would improve if read cache was increased from 250 MB to 500 MB
B. The application performs mainly read-modify-write-read operations
C. The read cache hit ratio is above 50%
D. The read I/O access pattern is largely random
Answer: D

2. A customer has two 50 GB MirrorView/S mirrored LUNs between two CX3-40s without a Write Intent Log. LUN1 is on SP A and LUN2 is on SP B. The two CX3-40s are connected via dedicated Fibre Channel links.
During the nightly maintenance window, the connection between SP A on the local array and SP A on the remote array is lost for 2 minutes. SP B is unaffected. When the customer logs in the next morning, they notice that LUN1 has a status of "attention" and is still fractured.
What caused this behavior?
A. Auto recovery is not possible on the CLARiiON
B. Missing Write Intent Log
C. Recovery policy is set to Manual
D. SP A set the affected front-end FC port administratively down
Answer: C

3. A customer has set up a disaster recovery site 50 miles (81 km) away from their production site. The customer is using MirrorView/S over IP with the Write Intent Log enabled. In addition, they have a dedicated 45 Mb/s line with a latency of 2 ms. During the testing of the automated solution for disaster recovery, an administrator accidentally disables the Write Intent Log. What is the likely outcome of this error if a secondary image becomes fractured?
A. The fracture log will continue to maintain a log of changed blocks.
B. The fracture log will continue to persistently maintain a log of changed blocks.
C. The Write Intent Log will flush all records of changes.
D. The Write Intent Log will hold change records up to the point where it was disabled.
Answer: A

4. Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A. CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B. CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C. MirrorView connection failed
D. SAN Copy connection failed
Answer: C

5. A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer’s site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the appropriate LUNs?
A. Create the appropriate storage groups
B. Disable Access Logix
C. Enable Access Logix
D. Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

6. You are a storage administrator who has been tasked with sizing a database LUN for an Exchange 2007 mailbox server. You have been provided with the following information regarding basic capacity requirements:
450 users
200 MB mailbox size
2.5 MB mail sentday
Deleted items retained for 14 days
Deleted mailboxes retained for 30 days
You have also been provided with additional information regarding usage and maintenance processes:
Online maintenance takes 3 days to complete
Approximately five mailboxes are deleted during an average month
Content indexing will not be performed
Offline maintenance will be performed on a separate LUN
Which approximate LUN size will satisfy the listed requirements and still allow for 20% yearly growth?
A. 145 GB
B. 175 GB
C. 355 GB
D. 455 GB
Answer: B

7. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is complaining that SAN Copy sessions from CLARiiON-A to CLARiiON-B take substantially longer than from those to CLARiiON-C. All hosts have 4 Gb/s HBAs. All Cisco equipment is base hardware configurations.
Which component is causing the issue?
A. 9020s
B. 9216
C. HBAs
D. Hosts
Answer: B

8. A customer runs its critical Oracle environment through a Fibre Channel connection to a CX3-40c. In order to leverage the existing iSCSI connections, management decides to allocate a small amount of storage to support several Windows file servers. The customer needs to make certain that the Oracle SLA is not impacted by the non-critical Windows file servers. Which solution do you recommend?
A. Use Navisphere Quality of Service Manager to set limits on applications connected through iSCSI
B. Change the write aside cache value for Windows LUNs
C. Use Navisphere Service Taskbar to assign a higher SLA to the Oracle environment
D. CX3-40c will automatically assign higher priority to FC connections over iSCSI
Answer: A

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Exam : EMC E22-310
Title : DiskXtender for Windows Exam

1. Company ABC is planning its storage management using DiskXtender for Windows. It decided to use Retained NAS media for the secondary storage. Which retention settings are available?
A.Retention Class, Retention Period, and Infinite Retention
B.Retention Period
C.Retention Period and Infinite Retention
D.Retention Period and Retention Class
Answer: B

2. Which environment could benefit most from an archive solution?
A.The files are deleted often.
B.The files are often accessed.
C.The files are often requested for recovery to a point in time.
D.The files are rarely modified.
Answer: D

3. A customer using a non-extended attribute aware backup solution notices metadata exports are as large as the current extended drive used space. How can their metadata exports be optimized?
A.Set metadata export to include files from media folders only
B.Set metadata export to include files not in media folders
C.Schedule incremental metadata exports
D.Set metadata exports to export managed files only
Answer: D

4. An IT administrator installed DiskXtender on a file server. After 30 days, files stop migrating. What is the cause?
A.DiskXtender needs to be restarted once a month.
B.Evaluation license has expired.
C.MediaStor has not been installed.
D.Search Module has not been installed.
Answer: B

5. Click the Exhibit button.
As displayed in the exhibit, a File System Manager configuration has two media groups, Centera and NAS. Two move rules are configured, one for each media group, and listed in the order displayed in the exhibit.
If the file Medical.GIF qualifies for a move, to which media will the file be migrated?
A.Both EMC Centera and NAS
B.EMC Centera media only
C.NAS media only
D.Neither
Answer: C

6. Files that were deleted from the extended drive cannot be recovered from the DiskXtender Recycle Bin. The recycle bin is enabled, but its empty schedule is not configured. Why is the recycle bin empty?
A.The end user deleted the files and therefore they would not appear in the recycle bin.
B.The file has to be restored from a backup first.
C.The files have not been purged yet.
D.The files were deleted using a Privileged Delete.
Answer: D

7. What is a benefit of file system archiving?
A.Allows data to be restored to a point in time
B.Provides encryption protection
C.Provides for disaster recovery
D.Reduces backup times
Answer: D

8. Who is the primary target audience for the DiskXtender Search Module?
A.CIO
B.End users and security officers
C.End users
D.Security officers and IT managers
Answer: D

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Exam : EMC E20-040
Title : EMC (r) Technology Foundations

1. When changes are made to a SnapView source LUN, where is the original data saved?
A.Cache memory
B.Clone Private LUN
C.PSM
D.Reserved LUN pool
Answer: D

2. How many bi-directional mirror relationships are allowed per CLARiiON array?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
Answer: C

3. In a NetWorker environment, which EMC Disk Library feature is used to export virtual tapes to physical tapes, while preventing blind spots?
A.Auto Archive
B.Embedded Storage Node
C.Embedded Media Server
D.Remote Copy
Answer: B

4. In a CLARiiON array, how is I/O handled when a LUN is expanding?
A.Continues to all component LUNs
B.Continues to base LUN only
C.Halted during expansion
D.Halted to the base LUN only
Answer: B

5. After Rainfinity completes a directory or share move, clients can access data through a logical view without having to remap to the new destination. What is the underlying physical location called that maps this logical view?
A.Data Mobility
B.Global Namespace
C.Proxy Service
D.VLAN Change
Answer: B

6. In a CLARiiON array, which clone state would prevent a clone from being removed from a clone group?
A.Consistent
B.Fractured
C.Promoted
D.Synchronizing
Answer: D

7. Which mechanism is used shorten the synchronization process after the link goes down between the primary and secondary mirrors?
A.Fracture log
B.Persistent Storage Manager
C.Primary arrays write cache
D.Reserved LUN pool
Answer: A

8. In a CLARiiON array, what is a characteristic of a metaLUN?
A.Can be only expanded one time
B.Can be used with SnapView and MirrorView
C.Cannot be added to a storage group
D.Supported on FC and CX series arrays
Answer: B

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Exam : EMC E20-455
Title : Content Management Web Application Programming Exam

1. Where are the WDK servlets defined?
A. app.xml
B. wdk.xml
C. web.xml
D. server.xml
Answer: C

2. If you want a new application layer in between the custom and webtop layers, then which file should you extend?
A. customapp.xml
B. webtopapp.xml
C. WEB-INFweb.xml
D. webtopmain_component.xml
Answer: B

3. Your employer asks you to rename the custom folder for your WDK application to "datasink."
Which XML entry represents the correct means of changing the custom folder’s name?
A. <custom>
<application>
<application-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<application-value>datasink</param-value>
</application>
…
B. <config>
<app-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value extends="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</app-param>
…
C. <web-inf>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value inherits="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
…
D. <web-app>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value>datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
…
Answer: D

4. For what can a qualifier be used?
A. to filter valid data to be displayed
B. to check permissions during authentication
C. to scope and filter actions and components
D. to check data against the data dictionary
Answer: C

5. How do you automatically include a custom JavaScript file to be in all of your JSPs?
A. by adding a reference to the component configuration file
B. by specifying it as an application parameter in the app.xml
C. by appending a reference to the Javascript file WebformScripts.properties
D. by using the <@ page import="custom/myUtils.js"> directive
Answer: C

6. Which directories are representative of application layers in a default Webtop installation?
A. WEB-INF and webtop
B. WEB-INF and wdk
C. custom and webtop
D. custom and help
Answer: C

7. The highest level application layer of a WDK application is defined in which file?
A. app.xml
B. conf.xml
C. wdk.xml
D. web.xml
Answer: D

8. Which statement is true about the inheritance of elements between application layers?
A. Elements are inherited from lower layers if they are not overridden in the higher layers.
B. Elements are inherited from lower layers only if they are overridden in the higher layers.
C. Elements are inherited from all application layers regardless of application layer hierarchy.
D. Elements are only inherited from application layers that are at the same level in the application layer hierarchy.
Answer: A

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Exam : EMC E20-080
Title : EMC Technology Foundations-NAS

1. Which statement about Asynchronous transmissions is correct?
A. A frame clock timing signal is required for correct transmission
B. Multiple characters are transmitted at a time
C. Single characters are transmitted at a time
D. The sender and receiver must negotiate the transmission speed
Answer: C

2. Which statement about NDMP2D backup is correct?
A. Both Metadata and Data passes over the network infrastructure
B. Data passes over the network infrastructure
C. Metadata passes over the network infrastructure
D. No Metadata or Data passes over the network infrastructure
Answer: C

3. What is a type of network topology?
A. Bus
B. Core to edge
C. Fabric
D. Link
Answer: A

4. What does SSH use?
A. a clear text message transmit
B. a less secure communications connection than Telnet
C. TCP port 22
D. TCP port 23
Answer: C

5. What does the OSI Data Link layer provide?
A. a reliable message stream to the user interface
B. address and routing for data
C. data encapsulation
D. the media specification
Answer: C

6. What business need does NAS address?
A. Application security
B. Firewall configuration
C. Heterogeneous client support
D. Print spooling
Answer: C

7. Which statement about Celerra TimeFinder/FS Near Copy is correct?
A. Is a CLARiiON only solution
B. Is a Symmetrix only solution
C. Provides a pointer based view of the file system
D. Shares the same volume as the Production File System
Answer: B

8. What do VLANs reduce?
A. The amount of network traffic
B. The number of network segments in the network infrastructure
C. The router traffic overhead in the network infrastructure
D. The security in a network infrastructure
Answer: C

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Exam : EMC E20-500
Title : EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Exam

1. You are giving a presentation to a customer about EMC virtualization products. They specifically ask about file storage virtualization. Which EMC product enables file storage virtualization using industry-standard protocols and mechanisms in a heterogeneous environment?
A. Invista
B. Rainfinity
C. RecoverPoint
D. Vmware
Answer: B

2. Your customer is experiencing write performance problems on a RAID 5 LUN used for backup-to-disk on its CX3 array. The LUN has been placed on ATA drives. The customer has determined that it would like the LUN on Fibre Channel drives instead. The customer has requested you provide the best option to alleviate this performance problem, keeping downtime to a minimum. What action would you recommend?
A. Create a new LUN on fibre drives and restore the data from tape to the new LUN.
B. Implement a newer array and use MirrorView to migrate the data.
C. Use Dynamic Virtual LUN functionality to move the LUN from ATA to fibre drives.
D. Use SnapView to make a clone of the LUN on fibre drives and assign the LUN to the appropriate storage group.
Answer: C

3. After a Data Mover failover, how is the failback operation performed?
A. Automatically
B. Data Mover failover is not supported
C. Manually
D. Recovery is not needed until another failure occurs
Answer: C

4. What are the primary goals of an optimization engagement?
A. Avoid future problems, reduce complexity, enable high availability
B. Fix existing problems, avoid future problems, reduce costs
C. Fix existing problems, improve utilization, increase efficiency
D. Reduce costs, reduce complexity, increase efficiency
Answer: D

5. An EMC ControlCenter customer is a United States Department of Defense contractor. The contractor needs to show that there is controlled user access to devices and to the modification of these devices. This will allow the contractor to provide proof of compliance and accountability. Which security feature of EMC ControlCenter should you discuss with the contractor to satisfy this requirement?
A. Data collection policy (DCP)
B. EMC Secure Remote Support (ESRS) Gateway
C. Role-based access control (RBAC)
D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
Answer: C

6. A customer implemented BCVs with mirrors for use with the most critical business volumes. The standard volumes were established with the BCVs at the start of the day, but later in the day the customer discovered data corruption. Which action would enable a restore from uncorrupted BCV volumes?
A. Differential Split
B. Instant Split
C. Protected Restore
D. Reverse Split
Answer: D

7. What does Inter-Switch Link trunking do?
A. Allows ports on the same blade to be used for ISL
B. Enables ISL between switches to reach up to 200 km distances
C. Prohibits a port from becoming an E_Port for fabric security
D. Aggregates the bandwidth of multiple ISLs
Answer: D

8. When data is written to a SnapView source LUN, at what point are the data chunks saved to the Reserved LUN pool?
A. During synchronization
B. Every time data is changed on the source
C. Every time write cache is flushed
D. When source data is changed for the first time
Answer: D

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Exam : EMC E20-050
Title : EMC Technology Foundations – Clariion

1. What are the characteristics of Symmetrix Enginuity?
A. Comprehensive Symmetrix management and data security
B. Continuous availability, data integrity, built-in security features
C. Enabled consistency and continuous availability
D. Symmetrix-based feature portability and enabled consistency
Answer: B

2. Which EMC software decreases the complexities associated with a command line interface?
A. Host Component
B. Storage Scope
C. Symmetrix Management Console
D. Symmetrix Performance Manager
Answer: C

3. What is a DMX-3 Direct Matrix Interconnect specification?
A. 64 2Gb/s Fibre Channel paths
B. 128 direct paths from directors and memory
C. Four or eight processors per director
D. Full component-level redundancy with hot-swappable replacements
Answer: B

4. Which of these business benefit uses Symmetrix Service Credential?
A. Advanced recovery and failover
B. Database safekeeping
C. Recovery-point objectives
D. Symmetrix security
Answer: D

5. What would be the cause of the delay in a DMX-3 read miss?
A. Host missed the time to get data
B. Information is missing from the files
C. Information left cache before it was read
D. Information must be read from disk
Answer: D

6. In what way are DMX-2 global cache director boards divided?
A. Boards are divided into four addressable memory chips
B. Boards are divided into four addressable regions comprised of one memory chip
C. Boards consist of four memory chips, each divided into eight regions
D. Boards consist of memory chips and are divided into four addressable regions
Answer: D

7. Which of these DMX arrays is optimized for the most efficient power and cooling?
A. DMX-2
B. DMX-3 950
C. DMX3000
D. DMX800
Answer: B

8. Which Symmetrix implements a unified director feature?
A. DMX1000
B. DMX2000
C. DMX-3
D. Symmetrix 8000
Answer: C

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Exam : EMC E22-128
Title : EMC Legato Cert Networker 7 x Administrator

1. What is the Backup Command attribute in the client configuration for a scheduled backup of a Microsoft SQL database?
A. sqlsave
B. sqluasm
C. nsrsqlsv
D. save -n sql
Answer: C

2. A company has a failed group backup and the system administrator wants to run the probe to see which filesystem on the client is backed up. Which command probes the clients?
A. savegrp -s oboe -S Default
B. savegrp -s oboe -p Default
C. savegrp -s oboe -w Default
D. savegrp -s oboe -v test Default
Answer: B

3. What is the purpose of the NetWorker Staging resource?
A. configures the disk space used on the NetWorker Server for adv_file type devices
B. repacks tape volumes containing deleted or expired save sets as well as demultiplexes the remaining save sets
C. maintains free space on file/adv_file type devices by automatically moving save sets when parameters are met
D. configures NetWorker HSM functionality to allow clients to transparently archive and stage data based on access time
Answer: C

4. An unwanted tape pool cannot be deleted until the tapes in that pool are all _____.
A. write-protected
B. marked as recyclable
C. removed from the tape library
D. removed from the media database
Answer: D

5. What is the primary purpose of the group resource?
A. defines the schedule for a group of clients
B. defines the start time for a group of clients
C. defines the save sets for a group of clients
D. defines the backup level for a group of clients
Answer: B

6. What is a proper method of determining the tape drive order before configuring a tape library?
A. use the autodetect option of jbconfig
B. put a tape in one drive and use mt to check status of that drive
C. use psstat to get the order of drives and correlate it with inquire output
D. use /usr/ccs/bin/what on the logical drive and correlate it with inquire output
Answer: B

7. Client flute is backed up to a file type device connected to the storage node orange. What happens when the file type device runs out of space during the backup?
A. The backup fails, is restarted, and uses the next available device.
B. The volume is marked full and the save set spans another volume.
C. The backup is suspended and waits for the administrator to clear space.
D. The backup is suspended, expired save sets are deleted, and the backup continues if enough space is cleared.
Answer: B

8. Which NetWorker database tracks information for each file in a save set?
A. media database
B. Client File Index (CFI)
C. savegroup completion report
D. the /nsr/index/* files on the NetWorker client that created the save set
Answer: B

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Exam : EMC E20-597
Title : Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage
　　　　　　　　　Administrators Certification

1. You want to deploy a NetWorker backup solution in an environment consisting of five Linux servers, two HP-UX, four Solaris, four Windows 2000 and three Windows 2003.
One of the Solaris servers is currently idle so you decide to use it as the NetWorker server. The customer purchased a NetWorker Power Edition for UNIX.
How many additional licenses are needed?
A. Seven client connections and three ClientPaks
B. Seven client connections and five ClientPaks
C. Eight client connections and two ClientPaks
D. Eight client connections and three ClientPaks
Answer: D

2. A company wants to move to a backup-to-disk solution, and is considering Celerra. What is an advantage of this solution?
A. Built-in tape acceleration algorithm
B. Extra hardware not required on the storage node
C. File system shares dedicated to individual storage nodes
D. Fragments file system to improve writes
Answer: B

3. Which NetWorker edition is needed to configure a data zone with a NetWorker server with 16 LTO2 devices and 10 storage nodes with 32 devices each?
A. Business
B. Network
C. Power
D. Workgroup
Answer: C

4. Why are split-mirror snapshots preferred for disaster recovery?
A. Always consistent
B. Faster recovery compared to copy on write snapshots
C. Provides a complete copy of production data
D. Requires less storage space compared to copy on write snapshots
Answer: C

5. What is an advantage of using EMC OnCourse?
A. Automated file transfers across Celerra systems
B. Creates local, point-in-time logical disk copies
C. Provides a "near instant" snapshot of a filesystem on the same or different Celerras
D. Automated file transfers across existing servers
Answer: C

6. In NetWorker 7.4, what could be done to add a client to a group?
A. Drag the client onto the group resource
B. Drag the client onto the pool resource
C. Select the client in the group resource
D. Select the client in the pool resource
Answer: A

7. For which type of NetWorker backup is the client file index backed up?
A. Client-initiated and server-initiated
B. Client-initiated only
C. Raw backups
D. Server-initiated only
Answer: D

8. Your customer is planning a NetWorker backup environment. They will have one NetWorker server and two storage nodes, all sharing the four tape drives in one autochanger.
How many dynamic drive sharing licenses are needed?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: C

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Exam : EMC E20-070
Title : EMC Technology Foundations-SAN

1. From PowerPath’s point of view, what array type is an INVISTA instance?
A. Active-active
B. Active-passive
C. Passive-active
D. Passive-passive
Answer: A

2. What are two valid types of zoning in a SAN?
A. Flexible Zoning and Invariant Zoning
B. Hard Zoning and Soft Zoning
C. SNIA Zoning and Vendor-Unique Zoning
D. Serial and Parallel zoning
Answer: B

3. Which information does VisualSRM collect about hosts?
A. CPU and memory utilization
B. Filesystem names and utilization
C. Switch and array port to filesystem mapping
D. Volume group names and utilization
Answer: B

4. Which GUI interface is used to build Symmetrix configurations or BIN files?
A. Fabric manager
B. Navisphere
C. SymmSeek
D. SymmWin
Answer: D

5. What is PowerPath?
A. Array based software that intelligently manages I/O to the array
B. Array based software that supports active-active and active-passive arrays
C. Host based software that notifies the application when a path failure occurs
D. Host based software that provides path failover and load balancing.
Answer: D

6. What is the default element size for a five disk RAID 5 group?
A. 64 bytes
B. 4KB
C. 64KB
D. 128KB
Answer: C

7. Which CLARiiON component is used for staging and prefetching data?
A. nv ram
B. PSM
C. Read cache
D. Write cache
Answer: C

8. When can PowerPath configuration, management and tuning be performed?
A. During maintenance windows
B. Offline
C. Online
D. When the system is not used for production
Answer: C